[ArM5] questions on laws and privileges

[Adam Flynn]

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It seems that feudal law was a bit looser in the south of France than I
expected anyway.
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Additionally, unlike the England monarchy, the French monarchy during the
middle ages was unable to gain full possession of the rights of high justice
(for crimes of murder, rapes, etc).  In 1215, there were still over a
thousand seigniorial (or manorial) courts in France that retained the right
to high justice.  So that many feudal lords in France had powers that few
feudal lords in England had.